Answer
True.
Work Step by Step
$\cos(x)$ is an even function. Therefore, $f(-x)=f(x)$. Thus, $f(-x)=\cos(-x)$ should equal $f(x)=\cos(x)$. Therefore, the statement is true.
Functions Modeling Change: A Preparation for Calculus, 5th Edition
by Connally, Eric; Hughes-Hallett, Deborah; Gleason, Andrew M.; Cheifetz, Phil C.
Published by
Wiley
ISBN 10:
1118583191
ISBN 13:
978-1-11858-319-7
Chapter 7 - Trigonometry and Periodic Functions - Strengthen Your Understanding - Page 319: 4
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