Answer
Doesn't make sense.
Work Step by Step
The contrapositive of $p\rightarrow q$ is $\sim q\rightarrow \sim p$.
Hence here the contrapositive is: $\sim (p\land r) \rightarrow q $, thus the statement doesn't make sense.
Thinking Mathematically (6th Edition)
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0321867327
ISBN 13:
978-0-32186-732-2
Chapter 3 - Logic - 3.6 Negations of Conditional Statements and De Morgan's Law - Exercise Set 3.6 - Page 179: 66
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