## Thinking Mathematically (6th Edition)

The contrapositive of $p\rightarrow q$ is $\sim q\rightarrow \sim p$. The converse of $p\rightarrow q$ is $q \rightarrow p$. The inverse of $p\rightarrow q$ is $\sim p\rightarrow \sim q$. Thus the inverse of the converse is $\sim q\rightarrow \sim p$., which is the contrapositive, thus the statement makes sense.