Answer
Yes, $h(x)$ is in $\text{span}(f(x),g(x))$.
Work Step by Step
Since $1 \cdot f(x) - 1 \cdot g(x) = \cos^2(x) - \sin^2(x) = \cos(2x)$, $\cos(2x)$ is in the span of $f(x)$ and $g(x)$.
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.