Answer
TRUE
Work Step by Step
We know that the curl of $\nabla f$ is 0 by definition, and thus div(curl($\nabla f$)=0.
Calculus: Early Transcendentals 8th Edition
by Stewart, James
Published by
Cengage Learning
ISBN 10:
1285741552
ISBN 13:
978-1-28574-155-0
Chapter 16 - Review - True-False Quiz - Page 1148: 3
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