#### Answer

Yes, $m_{1}m_{2}$

#### Work Step by Step

$f(g(x))=f(m_{2}x+b_{2})=m_{1}(m_{2}x+b_{2})+b_{1}=m_{1}m_{2}x+m_{1}b_{2}+b_{1}$
$f(g(x))$ is still a linear function with gradient $m_{1}m_{2}$

Published by
Cengage Learning

ISBN 10:
1285741552

ISBN 13:
978-1-28574-155-0

Yes, $m_{1}m_{2}$

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