Answer
FALSE
Work Step by Step
Consider an example
$f(x)=(x-2)^{4}$
and
$f''(x)=12(x-2)^{2}$
Here $f''(2)=0$, but $f''(x)$ does not change sign , hence there is no inflection point .
For there to be an inflection point , $f''(x)$ when $x\lt 2$ and $f''(x)$ when $x\gt 2$ must have opposite signs.
Hence, the given statement is false.
