Answer
false
Work Step by Step
Since, $f_{xy}=(f_{x})_{y}=\frac{∂}{∂y}(\frac{∂f}{∂x})=\frac{∂^{2}f}{∂y∂x}$
Hence, the statement is false but it is true by the Clairaut's Theorem, that is, $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$.
Calculus 8th Edition
by Stewart, James
Published by
Cengage
ISBN 10:
1285740629
ISBN 13:
978-1-28574-062-1
Chapter 14 - Partial Derivatives - Review - True-False Quiz - Page 1022: 3
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