## Calculus 8th Edition

Since, $f_{xy}=(f_{x})_{y}=\frac{∂}{∂y}(\frac{∂f}{∂x})=\frac{∂^{2}f}{∂y∂x}$ Hence, the statement is false but it is true by the Clairaut's Theorem, that is, $f_{xy} = f_{yx}$.