#### Answer

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#### Work Step by Step

Let $a = 0, f(x) = \frac{1}{x}, g(x) = -\frac{1}{x}$. Neither of the two individual limits exist, but since $f(x) + g(x) = 0$, we have $\lim_{x \to a}[f(x) + g(x)]$ exists and is 0.

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Published by
Cengage Learning

ISBN 10:
1337613924

ISBN 13:
978-1-33761-392-7

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