Answer
False
Work Step by Step
Let us take an example:
$A_1(D)F(x)=(D-1)(e^x+1)=-1$ and $A_2(D)F(x)=D(e^x+1)=e^x$
We can see that $A_1(D)$ and $A_2(D)$ do not annihilate $F(x)$.
Therefore, the given statement is $\bf{False}$.
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