Answer
Doesn't make sense.
Work Step by Step
According to the Binomial Theorem we can obtain the $r+1$th term of the expansion of the binomial $(x+y)^n$ by the formula $_nC_rx^{n-r}y^r$.
Thus the coefficient of the first term is $n\choose0$, the coefficient of the first term is $n\choose1$. Thus the statement doesn't make sense.
