Answer
Makes sense
Work Step by Step
This makes sense because (f $\circ$ f$^{-1}$)(x) will always equal x so you know the answer is 17 without finding the inverse of f.
College Algebra (6th Edition)
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32178-228-3
ISBN 13:
978-0-32178-228-1
Chapter 2 - Functions and Graphs - Exercise Set 2.7 - Page 311: 88
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