Answer
No.
Work Step by Step
The two functions are inverses of each other if $(f\circ g)(x)=(g\circ f)(x)$.
For the given functions,
$(f\circ g)(x)
\\=f(g(x)
\\=-4(-\frac{1}{4}x-2)+2
\\=x+8+2
\\=x+10$
Therefore, $f$ and $g$are not inverses of each other.