Answer
No.
Work Step by Step
We know that if a function is odd, then $f(-x)=-f(x).$
Hence $f(x)=0$ is also odd but it is not one-to-one (because for all $f(x)=0$ multiple $x$s belong). Thus the answer is no.
College Algebra (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0321979478
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-947-6
Chapter 6 - Section 6.2 - One-to-One Functions; Inverse Functions - 6.2 Assess Your Understanding - Page 423: 103
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