#### Answer

No because there are multiple $y$'s for an $x$ (which is 2).

#### Work Step by Step

A function has only one $y$ for every $x$. This relation has two $y$'s for 2.

Published by
Prentice Hall

ISBN 10:
0133186024

ISBN 13:
978-0-13318-602-4

No because there are multiple $y$'s for an $x$ (which is 2).

A function has only one $y$ for every $x$. This relation has two $y$'s for 2.

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