Aristotle: Nicomachean Ethics

What does Aristotle mean when he says, "The chief or ultimate good for Aristotle must be "final" or the "end of action", it must be "self-sufficient", it must be "complete", and must reside in the "ergon" of man"? Also, what are his arguments?

In easy to understand terminology please ;)

Asked by
Last updated by clueless #255989
Answers 2
Add Yours

For Aristotle, the ultimate "good" has to be something that is an end in itself (as opposed to a means to a separate end). The reason for this is that, if it were not, then there would always be the endless question of "why?" A "final end of action" answers that question by re-stating itself--thereby answering it in an ultimate sense.

Thank you sooooo much! That makes sense ;)