Answer
$(0,1)\cup(1,\infty)$
Work Step by Step
Use definition, $log_x1=0$ is equivalent to $x^{0}=1$, thus $x\in(0,1)\cup(1,\infty)$
Precalculus (6th Edition)
by Lial, Margaret L.; Hornsby, John; Schneider, David I.; Daniels, Callie
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
013421742X
ISBN 13:
978-0-13421-742-0
Chapter 4 - Inverse, Exponential, and Logarithmic Functions - Summary Exercises on Inverse, Exponential, and Logarithmic Functions - Exercises - Page 449: 33
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