Answer
$\text{True}$
Work Step by Step
The $y$-intercept of a function is the value of $y$ when $x=0$.
Thus, the $y$-intercept is actually equal to $f(0)$.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
Precalculus: Concepts Through Functions, A Unit Circle Approach to Trigonometry (3rd Edition)
by Sullivan III, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32193-104-1
ISBN 13:
978-0-32193-104-7
Chapter 1 - Functions and Their Graphs - Section 1.2 The Graph of a Function - 1.2 Assess Your Understanding - Page 61: 8
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