Answer
No, it does not make sense.
Work Step by Step
Simplify the provided expression to obtain,
\[\frac{{{a}^{n}}}{{{b}^{0}}}=\frac{{{a}^{n}}}{1}\]
Because \[{{b}^{0}}=1\] and not zero.
\[\frac{{{a}^{n}}}{1}={{a}^{n}}\]
As\[\frac{{{a}^{n}}}{{{b}^{0}}}\] is not undefined because\[{{b}^{0}}=1\] and not zero, hence it does not make sense.
