#### Answer

$f^{-1}(0)=1$
$f^{-1}(4)=3$

#### Work Step by Step

We know that $f$ does have an inverse because it passes the horizontal line test (is one-to-one).
We know that $f(1)=0$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(0)=1$.
Similarly, we know that $f(3)=4$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(4)=3$.