Answer
No, $f(\frac{1}{2})=-\frac{1}{4}$
Work Step by Step
Step 1. Use the given coefficients to set up a division as shown in the figure.
Step 2. Perform a synthetic division.
Step 3. As the remainder is not zero, the given number k is not a zero of the polynomial function.
Step 4. Based on the Remainder theorem, we have $f(\frac{1}{2})=-\frac{1}{4}$