## Calculus 8th Edition

Since, $f(x,y)=\frac{1}{(x-2)^{2}+(y-5)^{2}}$ Take limits to both sides. $\lim\limits_{(x,y) \to (2,5)}f(x,y)=\lim\limits_{(x,y) \to (2,5)}\frac{1}{(2-2)^{2}+(5-5)^{2}}=\frac{1}{0}=\infty$ which is not equal to $f(2,5)$ Hence, the statement is false.