Answer
True
Work Step by Step
A function $f$ is one-to-one if and only if it maps distinct inputs to distinct outputs. That is, for any two inputs $x$ and $y$ in the domain of $f$, if $x$ is not equal to $y$, then $f(x)$ is not equal to $f(y)$.
If a function $f$ is one-to-one, then it is possible to define its inverse function$ f^{-1}$, which maps each output back to its corresponding input. That is, if $f(x) = y$, then $f^{-1}(y) = x$.
According to the theorem which states that a function has an inverse if and only if it is one-to-one, since we are given that the function is one-to-one, it follows that $f$ is invertible.
Therefore, the statement "A one-to-one function is invertible" is true!
