Answer
$1$
Work Step by Step
Because $a^0=1$ always. Division explains. When dividing exponents you use subtraction to find the solution. $\frac{a^2}{a^2}=a^{2-2}=a^0$. The fraction $\frac{a^2}{a^2}$ obviously evaluates to 1 and so does $a^0$ since it is equivalent.