How does Hamlet demonstrate intellectual and moral superiority?

From the beginning of the play, Hamlet seems to be intellectually superior to those around him. It is safe to say that IF he is pretending to be "mad," then his intellect is guiding his choices of how to be mad. He uses his "wit" to trick Ophelia by the way he acts when he comes into her chamber with his clothes awry, he tricks Polonius by talking to him about being a fishmonger (and his lines in this dialogue are very "pregnant" with meaning) and he observes the behavior of everyone to find out what is happening. He also takes in the behavior of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern as he ferrets out the real reason why they have come to see him.

judy t #197809

Oct 26, 2011 10:44 AM

Report abuse

From the beginning of the play, Hamlet seems to be intellectually superior to those around him. It is safe to say that IF he is pretending to be "mad," then his intellect is guiding his choices of how to be mad. He uses his "wit" to trick Ophelia by the way he acts when he comes into her chamber with his clothes awry, he tricks Polonius by talking to him about being a fishmonger (and his lines in this dialogue are very "pregnant" with meaning) and he observes the behavior of everyone to find out what is happening. He also takes in the behavior of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern as he ferrets out the real reason why they have come to see him.