I have the prompt for my AP Literature class and I can't find concrete evidence for it.
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I think that the main idea has to do with the fact they are both women. Hamlet is so destrubed by Gertrude's marriage to his uncle that he paints all women with the same brush. He sees them as fickle creatures who have no sense of loyalty, Frailty, thy name is woman! Consequently, Hamlet's view of women is tainted for much of the play. He both uses and abuses Ophelia because she is a woman and to achieve his own ends.