By Aristotle's definition, are "natural slaves" everyone who is uneducated and/or incapable of learning (is learning a fair proxy for "reason")? I.e., is someone with the ability to reason, but no desire to, a natural slave? And similarly, is someone with the ability to reason, but who is denied the right to (no education, etc), in this category or would they be elevated above it?
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natural slaves in aristotle's politics
Hi,anybody who knows the indian politices, can help me out?
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[url=http://1984-riots.blogspot.com]jagdish tytler[/url]
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